Can anyone explain what determines the use of níorbh instead of níor? Mar sampla: níorbh chóir duit a bheith ag ól an uisce sin ar chor ar bith.

An é dá mhar do arbh agus gurbh?

Usually, it is preceeding a vowel. If the person speaking who wrote the above did not make a velar fricative but a h, then the power of the vowel might set off the +bh for them

For ar(bh) and gur(bh) the same prior to vowel conditions hold (in theory, at least). This is not the case when natives stop using this rule

This is not the case when natives stop using this rule

Ah yes. GRMA. I could have guessed.

For me they only change to the "bh" form when they're:

a) Forms of "is"
b) Followed by a vowel sound

So you'd have:

Ar oscail tú an fhuinneog?
Arbh éan a bhí ann?

Níor oscail sé í.
Níorbh fhéidir leis í a oscailt.

Dúirt sé gur oscail sé.
Dúirt sé gurbh éan a bhí ann.

I myself can't explain "níorbh ch...", but maybe it's to do with the particular speaker pronouncing "ch" something like a vowel. . . ?

(Message edited by pádraig on May 12, 2007)

For me they only change to the "bh" form when they're:

a) Forms of "is"
b) Followed by a vowel sound

I came across a grammar that indicates vowels and fh, but no mention of ch as in chóir. I think BRN's explanation, reinforced by FnB makes the most sense.

Beir bua

(Message edited by pádraig on May 13, 2007)

Yes, I always find FnBs explanations of grammar points to be quiet useful

quiet useful?

But I suppose a few less noisy clarifications would be in order.

Tis a well known fact I never won a spelling bee