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Pádraig
Member Username: Pádraig
Post Number: 169 Registered: 09-2004
| Posted on Saturday, June 04, 2005 - 11:52 am: |
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Having become accustomed to the Ulster response to "how are you?" as 'Tá mé go maith, go raibh maith agat'; and curious about the workings of the application at http://www.englishirishdictionary.com; I typed in tá mé go maith and was given back the phrase with the prepositional pronoun (di) addended. What the heck does that mean? Or am I mistaken in thinking that the first phrase is best translated "I am well?" Doesn't the latter give me "I am well to someone or other?" |
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Aonghus
Member Username: Aonghus
Post Number: 1559 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Saturday, June 04, 2005 - 03:05 pm: |
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"Tá mé go maith di" would be odd, but would mean "I am good for her". I think it is sometimes used to mean "I like her" - I can't at the moment remember if that is a feature of a particular dialect, but I have definitely heard it. But I'm not overly impressed with that dictionary. Particularly as it is not clear who is behind it, and what kind of credentials they have. |
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Aonghus
Member Username: Aonghus
Post Number: 1560 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Saturday, June 04, 2005 - 03:17 pm: |
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I'll revise that slightly - they seem to have done a lot of work on it since I did the "éirí" test on it. That, or I'm mixing it up with some other online dictionary. I'd still like to know who is behind it. |
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Pádraig
Member Username: Pádraig
Post Number: 170 Registered: 09-2004
| Posted on Saturday, June 04, 2005 - 03:56 pm: |
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I assume that the éirí test has something to do with how many variations a source comes up with for the use of the verb. This source has quite a few. Meanwhile, it translates Tá mé go maith di as "I love her." I would have said Tá grá agam di. Is either a question of dialect as opposesd to standardized usage? Also, while I have someone's attention, can I get a clarification regarding the subjunctive tense? Is there a difference between go bhfeice mé and go bhfeicfidh mé ? I suspect that the "go" in the latter phrase is not part of the subjunctive construction. Is there such a thing as a future subjunctive, or is it implied in the present? |
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Lughaidh
Member Username: Lughaidh
Post Number: 351 Registered: 01-2005
| Posted on Sunday, June 05, 2005 - 08:54 am: |
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I've learnt that "an bhfuil tú go maith domh?" is what a Donegal girl would ask to a boy in order to ask "do you love me?". |
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Aonghus
Member Username: Aonghus
Post Number: 1563 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Monday, June 06, 2005 - 03:33 pm: |
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An mbaineann sé le mná amháin? |
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Aonghus
Member Username: Aonghus
Post Number: 1567 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Tuesday, June 07, 2005 - 08:00 am: |
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quote:I assume that the éirí test has something to do with how many variations a source comes up with for the use of the verb. Sin é. When I tried that site (at least I think it was that one) about 6 months ago it just came up with "ascend". quote:Is there a difference between go bhfeice mé and go bhfeicfidh mé ?
My gut feeling and without prejudice to grammarians is that only the first is subjunctive in expressing a wish that I might see something, whereas the second will be preceded by something such as "Tá súil agam" (I hope/expect) and that it then goes on to mean "that I will see" |
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Pádraig
Member Username: Pádraig
Post Number: 171 Registered: 09-2004
| Posted on Tuesday, June 07, 2005 - 05:41 pm: |
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In which case, the "go" in "go bhfeicfidh mé" means "that?" mar sampla: tá súil agam go bhfeicfidh mé thú. But then why is the f eclipsed if it's simple future tense? |
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Larry
Member Username: Larry
Post Number: 64 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Tuesday, June 07, 2005 - 06:06 pm: |
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A Phádraig, a chara, A while ago I posted some tables (see here) listing conjunctions. Here they are again in summary form: Go, gur, nach and nár take the dependant form of an irregular verb. | | Positive | Negative | | verb | present / future | go (ecl) | nach (ecl) | prefix n- to vowel | | past * | gur (len) | nár (len) | remove d' from verb | copula | present / future | gur | nach | | | before vowel | gurb | nach | | | past / conditional | gur (len) | nár (len) | | | before vowel | gurbh (len) | nárbh (len) | | | (ecl) eclipses a following verb, (len) aspirates a following verb. * Note: The following 6 irregular verbs take go / nach in the past tense: verb | dependant form | Positive | Negative | Abair (say) | dúirt | go ndúirt | nach ndúirt | Bí (be) | raibh | go raibh | nach raibh | Déan (do / make) | dearna | go ndearna | nach ndearna | Faigh (get) | fuair | go bhfuair | nach bhfuair | Feic (see) | faca | go bhfaca | nach bhfaca | Téigh (go) | deachaigh | go ndeachaigh | nach ndeachaigh | | Does that answer your query a chara? Larry Ackerman
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Lughaidh
Member Username: Lughaidh
Post Number: 354 Registered: 01-2005
| Posted on Wednesday, June 08, 2005 - 07:48 am: |
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>In which case, the "go" in "go bhfeicfidh mé" means "that?" >mar sampla: tá súil agam go bhfeicfidh mé thú. >But then why is the f eclipsed if it's simple future tense? Any "eclipsable" consonant is eclipsed after the verbal particle "go", it doesn't come from the tense but from that particle, that always eclipses before verbs. |
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Max
Member Username: Max
Post Number: 37 Registered: 05-2005
| Posted on Wednesday, June 08, 2005 - 07:18 pm: |
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if i may... about tenses (i'm not speaking diachronically but synchronically) : "d'' like in "d'ith sé" is the past tense "r" like in "gur" is also the past tense this is why you have "gur ith sé". this is also why you have "go raibh" : because "raibh" is already the past form of the verb, so "r" would be redundent... quite frankly, i dealt with the irish verbal system last year, and i came up with something that is much simpler than what you can find in the grammar books... no wonder people get confused with what you can find in them... |
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Pádraig
Member Username: Pádraig
Post Number: 172 Registered: 09-2004
| Posted on Wednesday, June 08, 2005 - 07:53 pm: |
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Any "eclipsable" consonant is eclipsed after the verbal particle "go", it doesn't come from the tense but from that particle, that always eclipses before verbs. Of Course! If we keep searching and trying, someone's bound to give the simple, understandable explanation. You've done it, a Lughaidh |
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Lughaidh
Member Username: Lughaidh
Post Number: 358 Registered: 01-2005
| Posted on Wednesday, June 08, 2005 - 07:53 pm: |
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Actually, "gur" comes from Old Irish "co(n)-ro", and "raibh" from "ro-ba", so in "raibh" the preverb "ro" is already present, so no need to use the particle containing "ro", but just "co(n)" > modern irish "go". |
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Max
Member Username: Max
Post Number: 38 Registered: 05-2005
| Posted on Wednesday, June 08, 2005 - 08:05 pm: |
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Lughaidh, this is a diachronic explanation. but synchronically, the system reajusts itself in certain patterns.... every system is explanable in synchronic terms: no one has to learn old irish to learn modern irish... |
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Lughaidh
Member Username: Lughaidh
Post Number: 359 Registered: 01-2005
| Posted on Wednesday, June 08, 2005 - 08:12 pm: |
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But Old irish helps a lot - anyway, modern irish seems to be dead easy when you've studied Old Irish... |
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Canuck
Member Username: Canuck
Post Number: 30 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Thursday, June 09, 2005 - 10:43 am: |
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Lughaidh, I've been told by a well known poet that the use of "ro" still exists in Munster Irish. Do you concur? |
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Lughaidh
Member Username: Lughaidh
Post Number: 368 Registered: 01-2005
| Posted on Thursday, June 09, 2005 - 11:14 am: |
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In which context is it used ? |
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Canuck
Member Username: Canuck
Post Number: 31 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Thursday, June 09, 2005 - 11:21 am: |
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Good question. I was given almost the exact example that you gave with the origins of 'gur' and 'nár'. He mentioned that in Munster 'ro' was still used. I don't know if that was an encompassing statement or not since we quickly moved on. |
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Canuck
Member Username: Canuck
Post Number: 32 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Thursday, June 09, 2005 - 02:22 pm: |
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As an aside, he also told me that the word 'Daltaí' tends to refer to lower level learners and is not usually used for that reason. He implied it could be taken as an insult. Most often, the word 'Mac Léinn' is used to refer to a student. Anyone else agree? Interestingly, one of the larger news magazines published here in Canada is called 'Macleans'. They are famous for their yearly (many would argue biased) Canadian University ratings. |
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Lughaidh
Member Username: Lughaidh
Post Number: 370 Registered: 01-2005
| Posted on Thursday, June 09, 2005 - 04:36 pm: |
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Dalta means pupil and would be used for school children, i think, and mac léinn for university students. Maclean is a name of Scottish origin and isn’t related to mac léinn (except the "mac" element that means "son" in both words), anyway they aren’t pronounced the same way, i think: Maclean > /makli:n/, mac léinn /mak L’e:N’/. "Lean" (in its English spelling, i dunno what is the genuine Gaelic spelling) is a proper noun, so Maclean means "son of Lean". "Léinn" is the genitive of the common noun "léann" which means "study" "erudition". |
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Canuck
Member Username: Canuck
Post Number: 33 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Thursday, June 09, 2005 - 05:06 pm: |
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You're good Lughaidh! I just discovered that it was named in 1905 after its founder "Lt.-Col. John Bayne Maclean". Funny enough, we don't pronounce it /makli:n/. I wish I could post a sound file so you could hear how I pronounce Maclean with my Canadian accent. They sound almost identical to me which is why I made the false conclusion that they might be linked. Oh well! I propose a movement to change this site's name to www.MacLéinn.com! |
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Daisy Unregistered guest Posted From:
| Posted on Thursday, June 09, 2005 - 05:29 pm: |
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As Gaeilge MacLean is written Mac Giolla Eáin and is a northern name. I think Daltaí is the better name since it encompasses beginners working their way up rather than advanced level students only. |
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