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Cormac
Member Username: Cormac
Post Number: 22 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Friday, August 27, 2004 - 04:04 am: |
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In chapter 20 ó siadhail writes under "relative of copula": Sin é an fear ar maith leis an bord. Why has he not used eclipsis "leis an mbord"? Since in ch. 5, under "eclipsis" he states: "following almost all prepositions used with the definate article, the initial consonant of a singular noun is eclipsed. example from text: "tá gloine ar an mbord" |
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OCG (Unregistered Guest) Unregistered guest Posted From:
| Posted on Friday, August 27, 2004 - 04:44 am: |
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The "leis" refers to the "fear", not the "bord". The "maith" is not positional with the table, the "maith" is positional with the man. Hope this helps. |
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Fear_na_mbróg
Member Username: Fear_na_mbróg
Post Number: 24 Registered: 08-2004
| Posted on Sunday, August 29, 2004 - 10:54 am: |
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Who owns then? Cé leis an peann? le + é = leis le + an = leis an And here's the one that has you confused: lé + é + an = leis an Cé + le + é + an + peann + seo = Cé leis an peann seo? |
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