Post Number: 22
|Posted on Friday, August 27, 2004 - 04:04 am: ||
In chapter 20 ó siadhail writes under "relative of copula":
Sin é an fear ar maith leis an bord.
Why has he not used eclipsis "leis an mbord"?
Since in ch. 5, under "eclipsis" he states: "following almost all prepositions used with the definate article, the initial consonant of a singular noun is eclipsed. example from text: "tá gloine ar an mbord"
OCG (Unregistered Guest)
Posted From: 188.8.131.52
|Posted on Friday, August 27, 2004 - 04:44 am: ||
The "leis" refers to the "fear", not the "bord". The "maith" is not positional with the table, the "maith" is positional with the man.
Hope this helps.
Post Number: 24
|Posted on Sunday, August 29, 2004 - 10:54 am: ||
Who owns then?
Cé leis an peann?
le + é = leis
le + an = leis an
And here's the one that has you confused:
lé + é + an = leis an
Cé + le + é + an + peann + seo = Cé leis an peann seo?