from Niamh:

1. Bhí Mac Beathach, rí Ciarraí Luachra ann agus trí mhíle fear aige.

OI I modernised the spelling of Ciarraighe. Ciarraighe Luachra was a kingdom in Northern Kerry, probably where Sliabh Luachra is (where Father Dinneen was from!). But is it definitely a typo that there is no lenition on the Ciarraí? I get exercised over apparent typos, but I am wondering if the addition of the Luachra changes things and makes it into an entire proper noun that does not require lenition? The rules on Lars' site are so indepth for lenition of genitives with numerous exceptions and PUL's works don't seem to correspond 100% with Lars' exposition.

2. dá lom deirg ainneona - dispite his utmost efforts to the contrary. But how do I parse this? ainneona is genitive singular, "unwillingness". That is clear. Presumably lom is an adjective (although the word is an adjective and a noun), and deirg? A noun in the dative singular? Dearg can be a noun meaning "red", and lom dearg appears to be a noun meaning "the worst or extreme kind". But why would the dative singular be deirg? unless it is a feminine noun in PUL's works? I just simply don't know how to parse this phrase on a word-by-word basis.

Also, in dá lom deirg ainneona, is the dá from de or do? is it "dom lom deirg ainneona" or "dem lom deirg ainneona"?

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I get exercised over apparent typos, but I am wondering if the addition of the Luachra changes things and makes it into an entire proper noun that does not require lenition?

No, not in the modern language at least; you still need lenition. This is either a typo or PUL is following some archaic rule where lenition is absent in certain circumstances. I'm no expert on Classical Irish, I have to say but it might be no harm to check out Damian Mac Manus's chapter on Classical Irish in Stair na Gaeilge and see what he says about lenition.

quote:

2. dá lom deirg ainneona - dispite his utmost efforts to the contrary. But how do I parse this?

Yes, most unusual. One would expect dá loma-dheargainneoin but not this. Lom, though, is clearly a noun in the example you give as it governs "ainneoin" and "deirg" seems to be the dative though "lom" is masculine, or was it in fact feminine in PUL's Irish? A variant form of "loime"?

quote:

Also, in dá lom deirg ainneona, is the dá from de or do? is it "dom lom deirg ainneona" or "dem lom deirg ainneona"?

Well, "dem" historically but as you know "de" and "do" have largely fallen together in the south.

yes, I was getting confused about lom and dearg as nouns and adjectives. The construction is confusing. But PUL uses this frequently.

Lom as a noun = a bare thing
Lom dearg, listed on p673 of Dinneen's=the acme, the worst or extreme kind, literally "the red bareness".
Dá lom deirg ainneona=by the red bareness of unwillingness

I can't believe that lom as a noun is feminine, as Dinneen would have had "lom dhearg". You could read Irish for years and never come across lom as a noun, so it would be impossible to check the gender.

There are 2 alternatives:
1. Deirg is simply the dative singular masculine of the adjective dearg.
2. That deirg is a noun here. Dearg as a noun is listed in Dinneen's with the gs. deirg "red colour". We could have concatenated genitives: Dá lom deirg ainneona could be: by the bareness of the redness of unwillingness???

I am wondering if both lom and deirg are nouns in the dative: dá lom agus dá deirg ainneona? The whole phrase is problematic.

Yes, I can't figure it out either.

I think I'm "making a meal of this". it is clear that if "lom dearg" is a noun phrase in Dinneen's, that "lom" is the noun, and deirg is the dative singular adjective. The phrase lom deirg aimhdheóna is right, as it appears on p16 of Dinneen's dictionary. The dative singular masculine of the adjective dearg is simply deirg.

Why would this be? Well, PUL's works have "chodail" and "choidil" for slept, and the dative plural of "capall" is "capaillibh" and not "capallaibh". It is just the case that the dsm of dearg is deirg, or at least in this phrase...

I know that an adjective following a feminine noun in the dative is also inflected for the dative but is the same true of masculine nouns? Forgive my ignorance on this, the few examples in my own notes are following feminine nouns:

an áit a théann na haibhnte amach ’on bhfarraige mhóir; where the rivers flow out into the open sea, (GCD:142)

Though perhaps the following should read "ar a chaoil (< caol) chradhraic":

nuair a bhí sé ar a choill chradhraic = locked, pissed, blind drunk,(SB)

Ailín, do you think Séamas de Bárra will tell you anything about this? Don't go to any trouble on my account, but if you are intrigued it might be something to keep an eye out for more information on?

I'll ask him on Monday